* Pre-Adamic time
* just prior to the flood
* the time period of Jesus Christ's ministry
* the "latter-days" and the Tribulation period
I will be dealing with all four of these time periods in no set order, as most of what is being revealed about the enemy, is interlaced in prophecy. Also, because somethings must be brought to light first, in order for other things to be understood. I shall leave and discuss the area of pre-adamic time till the end of this document, as it must be discussed and looked at by itself.
THE FACTS
Most of this dissertation will be spent in the area of interpreting the facts from the bible as to whether the Lord has "spoken" on the possible connection between the modern day mystery of UFO's and their occupants and the bible. The reason for this, is that many people are familiar with the general facts about UFO's, and not too many people are familiar with the fact that the bible has MUCH to say about it. It is my opinion that, if I were to let the bible speak for itself, it will bring you intoALL TRUTH, even the REAL truth of what you already know, and don't know, about UFO's. I am not even going to entertain the ignorance of whether UFO's exist or not with you. If you say they do NOT, you are utterly ignorant of the facts, lying to yourself, and probably have never taken a look at the facts to begin with!. I'm sorry for being so abrasive, but I must speak truthfully. The evidence is OVERWHELMING for their existence, but its WHAT they are, that causes so much controversy. In case you don't know much of the general facts about UFO's, I shall make a list of the highlights, and integrate this side of the spectrum later on in the document. There has been well over 6000 "professionally" written books on the subject, but, just in case you are not aware of some of the facts, I'll recap for you. Here are a few.
- between 3 and 4 percent of the population of the United States, claims to have been abducted by a UFO (millions!)
- the United States governments official stance on the subject of UFO's is that they are NOT "extraterrestrial in origin", as far as their concerned
- UFO's do NOT pose a threat to the national security of the United States "AT THIS TIME"
- 82% of the population of the United States believes in the existence of "extraterrestrial life" elsewhere in the universe
- every Apollo and Gemini mission astronaut reported seeing UFO's, complete with the taking of audio and video documentation as evidence
there is well circulated audio and video evidence of a "cover-up" by NASA to suppress this evidence
- there is documented evidence showing that "SDI" (star wars), is fully "operational" and not targeted where you would suppose (see the ST-88 incident)
- seven presidents of the United States have made "official" UFO sighting reports
- NASA revealed publicly "photographic evidence" of monuments on the surface of mars in 1979.
- NASA announced to the world that "life was found on the surface of Mars" in 1996, one day after Clinton's re-election for a second term of office
- a massive cover-up by the United States government over the alleged "Roswell Incident" over 50 years ago, has caused considerable public unrest
- the "official" government position on "Roswell" over 50 years after the incident is "it never happened, probably a weather balloon".
- the official search for "extraterrestrial intelligence" (SETI) was called off long ago......
THE LIE
By the 2nd century A.D., what was once considered a bible truth, had now become rank"heresy" and the "highest of blasphemies", thus being denounced by the clergy of the Church. The Church at this time assumed this position after agreeing with the "interpretation" of one Christian writer, Julius Africanus (A.D. 200-245). Julius would "formulate" an interpretation of a very controversial scripture verse, thereby setting the course for what would be a defection away from what the early Church first believed. This is centered on a couple of KEY scripture verses that "unlocks" much of end-time bible prophecy. Julius Africanus "interpretation" of the term "son's of God" in the Old Testament, was upheld by the Jews at the time also, when Rabbi Simeon ben Jochai in the 2nd century A.D., "cursed " all those who believed in the LITERAL INTERPRETATION OF THE BIBLE, concerning the meaning of the term "sons of God". That's right, it was considered to be "blasphemous" to believe in what the bible said!. The"bible" at that time, consisted of the Septuagint (which was around when Christ walked the earth), Latin Vulgate, and various Hebrew versions of the Old Testament (Torah etc.). The first "complete" bible was in the form of the Latin Vulgate. The fact is, there is NO room for mis-translation here, which shall prove that the Church willfully chose to become APOSTATE on the meaning of "sons of God", and still remains today. This, even though all bibles translated after the Septuagint LXX, were translated in part from the Codex Alexandrinus. The Codex translates the term "sons of God" as "ANGELS of God". Every single modern day translation, was translated from the Codex Alexandrinus to some degree. The Latin vulgate would be the first translation to "cover over" INTENTIONALLY, the meaning of this term. By the late 4th century A.D., the Syrian church had managed to make the interpretation of Julius Africanus, known as the "good son's of Seth view", as official church "doctrine". Subsequently, it became policy of Papal theologians at that time, to eradicate firmly from the teachings of the Church, any doctrine or dogma contrary to the "son's of Seth view". The fact of the matter is, this interpretation and its apparent doctrine is a flat-out, heretical LIE, and completely apostate to the Word of God. This interpretation has and still does hide the KEY behind Satan's end-time "master plan" for these last day's, and completely undermines much end-time prophecy interpretation, keeping the entire body of Christ in utter DARKNESS!
FALLEN ANGELS
This controversy, surrounds the interpretation of the term "son's of God" used in the books of Genesis and Job. The term is properly rendered bene ha elohim in the Hebrew. The predicament here is that both the Septuagint and the torah translates this term as meaning that of ANGELS, and thereby creating one of the most disturbing doctrinal dilemmas the Church has ever had to face. The reality is, this rendering is the TRUTH. There is NO way to get around this one. As a matter of fact, it is IMPOSSIBLE to avoid the stark truth of this meaning, yet the false prophets and teachers have managed to perpetuate the "good sons of Seth" heresy for 1900 years via false theology. Those proponents that would say that the Holy Spirit would clarify over time the now accepted "son's of Seth" interpretation, are HERETICS!. God doesn't play games with his Word, if that's what it says, that's what it says!, and God MEANS what he says. Why must we try to fit Gods Word around our own idealology of what REALITY should or should not be.
"And it came to pass, when men began
to MULTIPLYon the face of the earth, and
daughters were born unto them, that the
s o n s o f G o d
saw the daughters of men that
they were fair; and they TOOK them
wives of all which they chose".
(Gen.6:1-2)
It's not enough that the bible clearly translates "sons of God' as "angels", but the propitiators of the real "lie" will not give you an answer as to why the supposed "good" sons of Seth would instigate an action which denigrates down to nothing more then the RAPE of women it would seem on a mass scale, when you study the text. These angels TOOK them "wives" of ALL THAT THEY CHOSE. What do you think, there was a "marriage", and a little white house with picket fence, and they lived happily ever after? NOT! What God is saying here is very clear. This "union" was not "amicable". Also, if the sons of Seth were so "good", why were they not spared the flood instead of Noah's family? The sons of Seth interpretation would also seem to denote that the "daughters of Seth", weren't too "good looking"?, and if they weren't very good looking, how is it that there was any sons of Seth? Are you getting my drift?, no matter how you break down the sons of Seth view, it completely falls apart. The original scriptural text is quite plain, that they were "angels". But what must be understood is that these angel's are FALLEN angels. Ancient Hebrew tradition holds that they "came down" in the days of Jared. Interestingly enough, the word Jared in the Hebrew is Yaradh, meaning "descent", or "shall come down"[Strong's ref. 3382]. Just so you know, MOST of the early Church fathers and reputed Christian reformers believed in the "angelic" or the "ancient interpretation" view. Here's a few:
Justyn Martyr
pseudo-Clementine
Martin Luther
Athenagoras Clement of Alexandria
Commondianus
Josephus Flavius
Tertullian Philo Judaeus
John Wycliffe
Iranaeus
Lactantius
The modern day bible scholars who support the "angel view" are also noteworthy here:
G.H. Pember
Merrill F. Unger
F. Delitzch
Chuck Smith C.H. Mcintosh
Hal Lindsay
Arthur W. Pink
I.D.E. Thomas Arnold Fruchtenbaum
Donald G. Barnhouse
A.C. Gaebelin
M.R. DeHaan Henry Morris
ChuckMissler
There is further confirmation of the "original truth" if one wants to go outside of the canon of the Holy Writ. The works of the Apocrypha and Pseudo-pigrapha, and the Syriac version of the Old Testament all confirm the bibles interpretation, including the Dead Sea Scrolls. Most notable is the pseudo-pigraphal book of Enoch, which WAS in the original canon amongst the works of the Apocrypha. St. Augustine (A.D. 354-430) would claim that on account of the book of Enoch being too old (ob nimiam antiquitatem), it was not allowed to be part of the Canon of Scripture. Other apocryphal works such as the Book of Jubilees,Testament of the 12 Patriarchs, the Genesis Apocryphon (1947 Dead Sea Scrolls), and the Book of Noah, all refer to the fallen angels or "watchers" siring "nephillim" with woman. The Greek word for angels is "angelos" in the New Testament, but it comes from the word "Mal'ak" in the Hebrew which means "messenger". The word "watchers" means [Strong's ref. 5894 iyr (Chald.), eer; a watcher, i.e. an angel:- watcher]. But this comes from the primitive root [Strong's ref. 5782 uwr, oor; a prim. root; opening the eyes; awake, lift up, master, raise up, stir up]. These are very interesting adjectives of description indeed. The sudden change from the "angel view" from the 4th century on was so dramatic, that the Church that once upheld the "angel view", would now torture and murder millions of "heretics" over the next few century's under the INQUISITION, based in part upon the "angel heresy". Included amongst the heretics were the Yezidi's (devil worshipers), Cathar's, Arian's, Bogomils etc., whose heretical theology's all instituted to some degree, the belief that angels (or demon's) procreated with mankind.
NEPHILLIM
Once one has grasped the profound grammifications of the "angel view", then one will not have a problem with what God says in the next couple of verses of Gen.6. If its not weird enough that fallen angels "manifested into flesh" before the flood, then your going to have to contend with the problem of the "offspring" of this union.
"There were
N E P H I L L I M
in the earth in those days; and also
after
that, when the
sons of God
came in unto the daughters of men, and they
bare children
to them, the same became
mighty men which were of old, men of renown".
(Gen.6:4)
I want to make this perfectly clear, the word "giants" translated in your bible is a clear cut INTERPRETATION LIBERTY from the Greek. The wrong "root" was chosen for the translation of the word "giants" on purpose. The root that was used is gigantes (giants), but thats NOT correct. Yes, they were "giant", but thats not WHAT they were. The translators did not interpret from the source root. The primitive root of "gigantes" in the Greek translates "gigas", meaning EARTHBORN. They are also called "gibbhor" or "gibborim" in the Hebrew. You see, your King James bible is translated from the Greek and Hebrew from cover to cover!. In the case of Gen.6:4, the translators specifically chose the Septuagint LXX for the word "giants", which was translated from Hebrew to Greek. The reason?, the source origin Hebrew translation is too "un-believable" (even though its true), because they REFUTED the "angel view". The correct translation in the Hebrew is [Strong's ref. 5303 nephiyl - nef-eel; prop. a feller, i.e. a bully or tyrant: - giant]. Its proper use in the plural for this word is NEPHILLIM (giants). Though this is the root given, it is NOT all of the meaning of the word. You must "trace the roots , to find the fruit", and what you come up with is [Strong's ref. 5307 naphal- naw-fal; a prim. root; to fall, be cast down, cease, fugitive, die, fail, be judged, throw down] and also the ancient chaldean root [Strong's ref. 5309 nephel- neh-fel; something fallen, i.e.an abortion]. Though these are descriptive words for these "offspring" (nephillim), they are much more descriptive of their "fathers" who bore them. What seems to give the credence to the "rape" scenario, is the use of the words "...came in unto..." in Gen.6:4. It implies that of "forcefulness". Also quite interesting, is the term "...and they bare children unto them". It might not seem curious to you at first, but God already stated at the top of the verse that"... there were nephillim (giants) in the earth in those days...". He is emphasizing the fact that there was a definite "sexual union" between human females and "fallen angels", creating a HYBRID progeny called the nephillim. These are what are referred to in ancient mythology as DEMI-GODS(half man - half God).
TITAN = Greek
SHEITAN = Chaldean
SATAN = Hebrew
If most of what you've read and learned about the "gods" of mythology isn't starting to ring some bells and whistles in your head by now, then your not alive!. It is imperative that you notice that the "nephillim" are NOT the same as "fallen angels". You must understand that "fallen" in the case of these angels, is a "state" rather then a "condition" at FIRST. What I mean is, what happened to the fallen angels after they "procreated" with the daughters of men? Every indication would seem to say that the fallen angels "left" in the same way they "...came unto..". They materialized "out of the "flesh" and back into their original form (spirit)", leaving behind their offspring, the nephillim on earth. When they came unto the daughters of men, they must have manifested FLESH. There is no other explanation and NO reason to believe this not possible as the bible is fraught with occasions of "angels" appearing in the flesh, eating, drinking, talking, fighting etc, and then "de-materializing" back into "spirit". Do you think the daughters of men were wives to phantoms or thin air?. As uneasy as this will make you feel, it is a REALITY. But then you're going to say "now wait a minute here, angels are sexless. The bible says so, so they couldn't have copulated with women!". Well.... your bible does NOT tell you the angels are "sexless". This view stems from another misinterpretation of scripture. The distortion of Matt 22:30, Mark 12:25, and Luke 20:35. These verses of scripture, are some of the most mistranslated verses of all time. Jesus in no way denotes anything to do with the angels "sex", rather he is stating there is no need for angels to marry, as they are created ETERNAL. There is no need for them to "extend themselves". Marriage was created for prolonging the existence of a "fallen" human race through "procreation!". This IS the point he is making, because the fact of the matter is, all the "host of heaven", good and bad including the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit, are ALL MALE!. You don't like it? TOUGH, cause thats what your bible TEACHES. Oh, and another thing, all of the "nephillim"?... were male ALSO, as there weren't any "mighty woman of renown", only MEN. Now, NO I'm not "sexist" or "racist", I'm just trying to state the abject facts according to the Holy Writ. There is New Testament confirmation however, that directly confirms the "angel view":
And the angels which kept not their
first estate,
but
left their own habitation.....
giving themselves over to fornication,and going after
STRANGE FLESH,
are set forth for an example, suffering the vengeance of
eternal fire".
(Jude 6-7)
It should be noticed here that this is a very unique translation for the word "strange" here. It is one of 18 different translations, and only used in one place, one time, right here in Jude 7. It is[Strong's ref. 2087 heteros,het - er - os; of uncert. orig., other or different,:-altered, strange]. And it would seem that Peter affirms this as well:
"For if God spared not the angels that sinned,
but cast them down to tartarus,
and delivered them into chains of darkness, to be
reserved unto judgement;
and spared not the old world, but saved Noah the eighth person...."
(2 Peter 2:4-5)
As you can see, there seems to be harmony within the Old and New Testaments as to this strange anomaly I am bringing to your attention. The "angels" held in tartarus are from the days of Noah, and shall be released just prior to Judgement. The "angels that sinned" are those that "copulated" with women. These are held along with the "rapha" (demons from the nephillim). Demons not in tartarus right now (on the earth) are from the nephillim AFTER the flood. These are the same demons Jesus contended with in his time, and the ones that are seen today. But right now I'd like to draw your attention to the flood for a moment.
THE FLOOD
To put it in a nut-shell "all HELL broke lose just before the flood". This interaction between angels and men created an enormous upheaval. God said that "ALL FLESH WAS CORRUPT" upon the face of the earth (Gen.6:12). This sounds to me like things got way out of hand, and this "interaction" between fallen angel and man had become "all encompassing". Like a plague, the fallen angels "infected" the entire human race. More disturbing, is that the scripture gives the allusion that this had an impact on the animal kingdom as well:
"And the Lord said, I will DESTROY man whom
I've created from the face of the earth; both man,
and beast, and the creeping thing,
and the fowls of the air; for it
repenteth me
that I have made them".
(Gen. 6:7)
God over-emphasizes the fact that he had to DESTROY "every living thing" off the face of the earth (except Noah and family and "carefully selected" animals). This is an extremely "stern" action and has never really been properly understood as to why? Now you KNOW why, God HAD to, otherwise no life COULD have been spared. Left outside the hands of God, man and beast would have been utterly annihilated, by "nephillim infestation", and or by themselves. This interaction also seemed to instill irrevocable destruction to the "spiritual nature" of mankind, as "...that every imagination of the thoughts of his heart was onlyEVIL CONTINUALLY" (Gen.6:5). There was only one way for God to handle this dilemma, by "wiping the proverbial slate clean!". And thats exactly what the Lord did....the flood. Satan had attempted to infiltrate ALL FLESH LITERALLY, to try and thwart the inevitable birth of Jesus Christ. Had God not taken the stern action of THE FLOOD, the doom of all mankind would have been a surety. The "plague" of fallen angels completely and utterly perverted ALL FLESH, even the animal kingdom, as God destroyed them as well. We may never know the full extent of the grammifications dealing with the flood event, but we do have somewhat of a "picture", if we will believe the bible. Like most of the "deeper" truths in the bible, they are not shown "openly" on the outside, but rather "mixed throughout" the scripture. These truths are only discernable when one digs deep into ALL the Word, and pulls these points together. There are things written in the bible, that NO ONE HAS FOUND AS YET as things have not occured for the prophecy given to be revealed. God has made his Word this way. Somethings must come to pass for these truths to come to the forefront, and so it is with the area of the "nephillim" in the bible. It has been the modern UFO era, that has brought to light the truths revealed in Genesis 6, and also confirming what Christ had said about the time of the end, and its similarity to the time of the flood. As a matter of fact, the bible says the end will be EXACTLY like the time before the flood. Though Satan failed the first time, he will, and is attempting it once again for his TIME IS SHORT. The reality of this truth is and will be totally denied by the Church at large, for it goes against THEIR DOCTRINES AS TAUGHT BY MEN. It does not matter, for the TRUTH will always remain THE TRUTH, no matter how much they try to deny it. Now Noah and the seven others of his family were "spared". What the Church will teach you, is that Noah was "perfect". He was a "just" man, and thereby by he was "superiorly righteous" before the Lord. Nope, you have to dig deeper then that. The word perfect here is translated in the Hebrew [Strong's ref. 8549 tamiym, taw - meem; entire, without blemish,complete, perfect,undefiled,whole]. It comes from an even earlier root, tamam, meaning be clean, consume,andmake an end [Strong's ref. 8552]. Now, all these adjectives are descriptive of "sacrifices" and used in this context. Certain sacrifices or burnt offerings, had to be made with animals that were "unblemished" or perfect "specimens" (physically). These were considered "undefiled" and acceptable offerings unto the Lord. Face it folks, we found out after the flood that Noah wasn't at all that "perfect" now was he (he was a drunk!). No, I'm pretty sure the Word of God is indicating that Noah's "bloodline" was "undefiled" by the fallen angel "invasion". His "genealogy" was unaffected by the fallen ones, thereby allowing an untainted bloodline to pass through the flood, which pass's on through to the 1st advent of the Savior. Both the spiritual and the physical aspects of "pureness" or "perfection" (un-blemished, without spot) are represented in the scripture. What has never been properly explained is the "physical" aspect. The interpretation by the Church leaves God looking like a "bumbling idiot" when it comes to his "creation". No, there is something "deeper" inferred by God in the LAWS of "cleanliness" and "purification" as to what is interpreted commonly today. God does not put just any old thing in his Word, and expect you to uphold them. No, there is precise "meaning" and "purpose" in every last JOT AND TITTLE of his Word. The whole mystery of 'why the flood?' becomes clear when one acknowledges the truth of Genesis ch.6. You will begin to understand "why" the person of Noah, and his "purpose" according to the flood event. You will understand why Noah was "spotless" and without "blemish". This will not seem at all too remarkable when one looks at the typology and eschatology concerning Noah in comparison with Christ. There is a hidden message in the genealogy from Adam to Noah. It is quite remarkable in that it really sums up to be a prophecy concerning Christ in the most simplest of ways you can think of. If we take the names of Adams descendants up to Noah, and translate them from Hebrew to English, we find this remarkable message of Jesus Christ's mission, for the redemption of all mankind, from the "curse" exacted at the fall.
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